Therefore shall a man leave his father and his mother and shall cleave unto his wife and they shall be one flesh - Genesis 2:24
This verse is often presented as an argument against same-sex marriage. Personally I want to refute that use, but I don't want to refute it incorrectly. So I'd like to understand the verse better. In particular, what are the implications of the verbal tense in Hebrew where it says "shall leave" and "shall cleave" ?
I tend to think of this more as a description than a command, like "this is why this happens," not "I command you to do the following." But I'm not sure if that's a reasonable interpretation.
I see that the verbal tense for "shall leave" includes a grammatical moiety (I forget the word) meaning "surely." Does this in-gram give the verb a meaning of a command? If so, I can see that that would weaken my argument.