As I understand it, se laver can have an explicit object such as in (1), where se is an indirect object and there is no agreement with the object:
(1) Il s'est lavé les mains.
My question is, is (2) proper French? Does it make sense at all, is there a better alternative?
(2) Il se les est lavées.
By the way, hi all, this is my first post. I'm a 3rd year Linguistics student and my native language is Dutch. Other languages I'm more or less fluent in: English (good), French (moderate), German (basic). I did gymnasium exams in Latin and Greek, so I have basic reading knowledge of those languages as well.