Star. (mirmarmelade) wrote in linguaphiles,

French pronouns and agreement

For a project in computational linguistics, I'm modelling the word order and agreement effects of pronouns and the participe passé in French. Although I have the basic rules down, I'm only conversationally fluent in French, and I was hoping a (near-)native speaker could help me out with the following:

As I understand it, se laver can have an explicit object such as in (1), where se is an indirect object and there is no agreement with the object:
(1) Il s'est lavé les mains.

My question is, is (2) proper French? Does it make sense at all, is there a better alternative?
(2) Il se les est lavées.

Thank you!

By the way, hi all, this is my first post. I'm a 3rd year Linguistics student and my native language is Dutch. Other languages I'm more or less fluent in: English (good), French (moderate), German (basic). I did gymnasium exams in Latin and Greek, so I have basic reading knowledge of those languages as well.

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