We're looking at the difference between "have" as an auxiliary and "have" as a main verb, using American English vs. British English.
Our thinking is that it should NOT undergo V -> T movement, because it is the only verb in the sentence, and it seems to be the possessive version of "have"... but we aren't sure... Any one have any ideas? Or explanations?
We're using X-Bar theory, as explained in Carnie's Generative Syntax textbook... (Ch.9)
Thanks in advance!!!!!!
WOW! I kiiind of made a mistake. I actually meant to type "Have you a pencil?"... Sorry everyone!!!!