Moviesville (maddie_hayes) wrote in linguaphiles,

Whom / Who as an object pronoun

(1) Whom did you see?  vs  (2) Who did you see?

Over the years I've got used to the idea that 'whom' in (1) is used in very formal English and has a very stiff ring to it. Even grammar books (Understanding And Using English Grammar by Betty S. Azar for one) point it out. But the other day a good friend of mine told me that it's still a compulsory norm and condidered a sign of good education and upbringing. She gave an example of an American family she was visiting a couple of years ago who persistently corrected their son every time he said 'who' instead of 'whom'.

What do you think and is this the same for American and British English speakers?

Thank you.


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