Joseph (bonsly) wrote in linguaphiles,

Romance languages

I'm sorry, my inner geek/curiosity will not let me go on with my life unless I ask this question:

Why does it seem, that out of all the Romance languages (well, the 5 major ones people tend to know more about) Spanish is the one where what you see is what you get? Explain more? Yes?

I've always found that written Spanish can be easily pronounced seeing as how every letter is pronounced, save for "H." And spoken Spanish is usualy written how it sounds. Does this have something to do with the language spoken prior to Roman occupation of the Iberian peninsula?

And for this peninsula matter, if Portugal was not a country just simply part of Spain, would Portuguese be consider a dialect of Spanish?

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