A man says "None of them work" and Fry corrects him, claiming that the correct formulation is "none of them workS" since the subject of "not one works" is singular. The logic seems sound, but I have never heard anyone say "none of them works", only "none of them work." Someone in the comments at the video suggested that Fry is mistaken to think that "not one" is equivalent to "none." I'm not sure who to believe. I dont think that "none" is actually a contraction of "not one," but... I dont know.
What do you lot think?