September 30th, 2007

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  • bidnez

non-phonemic v phonemic change

Dear All,


"A non-phonemic change (also called *allophonic* change) does not alter the total number of phonemes in the language. Some also call the non-phonemic change 'shifts'...." (Campbell 1998:19)


This is a question arising from Campbell's _Historical Linguistics_. Why is non-phonemic change considered allophonic, even when contrasted with phonemic change? How is this detail necessary, or even founded for that matter? This confusion comes from not seeing a difference between phonemic and non-phonemic change that is perforce semantic. Any information is appreciated.
Cosette -- sleeping

New Community

I'm not sure if this is allowed, and if it is a problem I will take it down.

Over the weekend, I started a new writing community, and I am trying to get people interested. Here's how it works. Someone posts a writing prompt, and members can contribute original stories by commenting to the original post. They can also add on to a story that is already written, again by replying to the comment. If we get enough people involved, this should be a lot of fun.

Also, if you have friends who might be interested, feel free to tell them. The more the merrier.
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  • pgadey

(no subject)

Hi there, I am trying to find out where I can get a copy of the complete, complete, works of Jorge Borges. I don't speak Spanish, but wouldn't mind finding the Spanish editions, and the language barrier is making my search much harder. Would anyone be able to help me?
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